Seeing how this topic is about gay marriages, yes, Jesus DOES speak about the issue of the acceptable type of marriage in God's sight.
I never said you said that. I said it. In essence I'm saying the concept of God as a loving and compassionate God and one executing judgment is in the Bible.Yet I never made that claim.....strawman anyone?
Maybe you may want to read Genesis 19:1-11; Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13, 1 Kings 14:24, Romans 1:18-32.I did say that there is nothing in the Bible where God and Jesus condemn homosexuality.
I don't even know what that verse means in relations to our conversation.I assume Genesis 1:28, but I don't know since the chapter and verse where God and/or Jesus condemn homosexuality does not exist.
Already done. And it's really not a matter of hemming and hawing. These verses are pretty well-known. I thought you might have known them, but I guess you didn't. But let me predict what your next statement is going to be, if you make one that is, "Well, those verses aren't saying what you think they're saying." or "God didn't say that."Really? You can provide the precise chapter and verse where God and/or Jesus condemned homosexuality?
Then do it badass. Instead of hemming and hawing, provide the chapter and verse.
Are you drunk?It is also, according to the Bible, sinful to do so. I will now repost the chapter and verse that shows how sinful your actions are:
Now go and sin no more!
How does it feel to get your ass whipped by an agnostic?
How do you know God hasn't sent me, appointed me, spoken to me? This is the question I asked you? I have yet to get an answer. Instead I get disjointed application of Scripture.Yes, that is true, that is the story and there are several lessons to be gleaned from this parable, one of which is you should not speak on the Lord's behalf unless, that is, the Lord has sent you, appointed you, or has spoken to you....
Yes, He has.Did the Lord send you, appoint you, or has He spoken to you, Tyke?
You're not making any sense.Then you have taken the Lord's name in vain. Mazel Tov!
How ironic and yet, how moronic.
Who's trying to intimidate you? Sensitive much?Is it? This is your tactic to drag me off topic on how you took the Lord's name in vain and pull me onto "your turf." Color me less than intimidated.
Your claim that I took the Lord's name in vain depends upon whether my original statement about God's judgment of sin is true or false.
If it is true, then I haven't taken the Lord's name in vain. If it is false, then I have.
But you haven't established how we can know whether God has spoken. That question needs to be answered first before your claims to have merit.
I'm still waiting on your answer to my question, i.e., How do you know God spoke directly to Jeremiah, the same Jeremiah that pronounces judgment on Israel because of its sins?
First, you are now changing what you said originally. You said God spoke directly to Jeremiah. Now you're saying you don't believe God spoke directly to Jeremiah.Personally I don't since I believe these stories as metaphors for spiritual teaching.
But if I did believe the Bible to be authentic, I would believe that God spoke to Jeremiah since it is mentioned in the Book of Jeremiah several times as well as confirmed in the Book of Job.
You just wanted to rant.
Second, Ahhh, so because it is mentioned in the Book of Jeremiah several times as well as confirmed in the Book of Job, this leads you to believe that God spoke to them. Well, there are several passages in the Bible that condemns homosexuality. And there are several passages in the Bible that confirm God's design for marriage. By your logic, God has spoken directly against homosexuality because it is mentioned several times in the Bible, both in the books Moses authored and in the prophetic books and in the New Testament.
Thank you, WB. You have just validated my point to Popeye regarding predominant theme.
But how do you know God spoke directly to Jeremiah rather than Jeremiah fabricating those words?But if I take the Bible at its word, I would believe only the parts of the Book of Jeremiah where God spoke directly to Jeremiah as God's direct message to Jeremiah.
You do know that Christ pronounced judgment upon sin, right? You do know that Christ talked about hell/hades/the place of judgment often. Matt 5:22, Matt 5:29-30 Matt 10:28, Matt 18:9, Matt23:15, Matt 23:33, Mark 9:43, Mark 9:45, Mark 9:47, Luke 12:5.Because they are not Christ-like in the least. I don't see you as being anything like Jesus.
I guess Christ was being unChrist-like when He spoke of judgment, then? Again, you're just flailing away. But it is quite amusing.
How would you know He's not? That's my question to you.But to get this straight, you are saying that God speaking you directly?
If you were going off what was written in the Bible, you'd know from which I speak. And if God has not spoken to you, how would you be able to identify it when He speaks to others?No, just going off of what was written in the Bible. Neither God nor Jesus has spoken to me.
This is exactly what I'm saying:
1) There is no place in the Bible where God and/or Jesus condemn homosexuality. WRONG
2) You have taken the Lord's name in vain by claiming that they will have to answer for their sexual orientation. WRONGVery simple. But I can understand how you would like to convolute the subject since you don't have a leg to stand on....
Hey, buddy. You responded to my post. You dragged yourself into this conversation.Feel free to try to drag me in the weeds on this sh!t any day.
Like a dog with a bone without any meat on it.The false prophets said that neither God nor Jesus spoke to them and that Tyke took the Lord's name in vain?!!!
How do you know I spoke a falsehood, especially when I've backed up my claims by Scripture, you know, that document you say contains God's words, uh, if you believed it.So how does this remove the fact that you spoke a falsehood with the implication that it was of God?
And the Bible says that God spoke to Moses directly, you know, the Moses who condemns homosexuality.Sigh. Except for the fact that the Bible claims that the Lord spoke to Jeremiah directly...thus, Jeremiah had not taken the Lord's name in vain because the Lord had spoken to him..........just as the verse that addresses taking the Lord's name in vain Jeremiah 14:14 says.
And Peter says that holy men of old spoke as they were moved by the Holy Spirit (=God), so we know that God spoke to the writers of the Bible such as Paul and the Gospel writers, who recorded the words of Jesus with respect to God's role for marriage and God's disapproval of homosexuality.
I'm merely repeating what they said, you know, using the word of God to validate my position. But thank you for acknowledging that we are to use the word of God to determine what God said and what God didn't say.